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Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Secondary Goat Anti-IgG (H&L) Reacts with Human

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.

Supplier: Prosci

Initiation of transcription by RNA polymerase II requires the activities of more than 70 polypeptides. The protein that coordinates these activities is transcription factor IID (TFIID), which binds to the core promoter to position the polymerase properly, serves as the scaffold for assembly of the remainder of the transcription complex, and acts as a channel for regulatory signals. TFIID is composed of the TATA-binding protein (TBP) and a group of evolutionarily conserved proteins known as TBP-associated factors or TAFs. TAFs may participate in basal transcription, serve as coactivators, function in promoter recognition or modify general transcription factors (GTFs) to facilitate complex assembly and transcription initiation. Its gene encodes a subunit of TFIID present in a subset of TFIID complexes. Translocations involving chromosome 17 and chromosome 9, where the gene for the nuclear receptor CSMF is located, result in a gene fusion product that is an RNA binding protein associated with a subset of extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcomas.Initiation of transcription by RNA polymerase II requires the activities of more than 70 polypeptides. The protein that coordinates these activities is transcription factor IID (TFIID), which binds to the core promoter to position the polymerase properly, serves as the scaffold for assembly of the remainder of the transcription complex, and acts as a channel for regulatory signals. TFIID is composed of the TATA-binding protein (TBP) and a group of evolutionarily conserved proteins known as TBP-associated factors or TAFs. TAFs may participate in basal transcription, serve as coactivators, function in promoter recognition or modify general transcription factors (GTFs) to facilitate complex assembly and transcription initiation. This gene encodes a subunit of TFIID present in a subset of TFIID complexes. Translocations involving chromosome 17 and chromosome 9, where the gene for the nuclear receptor CSMF is located, result in a gene fusion product that is an RNA binding protein associated with a subset of extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcomas. Two transcripts encoding different isoforms have been identified.

Supplier: Prosci

In mammals, the Y chromosome directs the development of the testes and plays an important role in spermatogenesis. A high percentage of infertile men have deletions that map to regions of the Y chromosome. The DAZ (deleted in azoospermia) gene cluster maps to the AZFc region of the Y chromosome and is deleted in many azoospermic and severely oligospermic men. It is thought that the DAZ gene cluster arose from the transposition, amplification, and pruning of the ancestral autosomal gene DAZL also involved in germ cell development and gametogenesis. DAZAP1 is a RNA-binding protein with two RNP motifs that was originally identified by its interaction with the infertility factors DAZ and DAZL.In mammals, the Y chromosome directs the development of the testes and plays an important role in spermatogenesis. A high percentage of infertile men have deletions that map to regions of the Y chromosome. The DAZ (deleted in azoospermia) gene cluster maps to the AZFc region of the Y chromosome and is deleted in many azoospermic and severely oligospermic men. It is thought that the DAZ gene cluster arose from the transposition, amplification, and pruning of the ancestral autosomal gene DAZL also involved in germ cell development and gametogenesis. This gene encodes a RNA-binding protein with two RNP motifs that was originally identified by its interaction with the infertility factors DAZ and DAZL. Two isoforms are encoded by transcript variants of this gene.In mammals, the Y chromosome directs the development of the testes and plays an important role in spermatogenesis. A high percentage of infertile men have deletions that map to regions of the Y chromosome. The DAZ (deleted in azoospermia) gene cluster maps to the AZFc region of the Y chromosome and is deleted in many azoospermic and severely oligospermic men. It is thought that the DAZ gene cluster arose from the transposition, amplification, and pruning of the ancestral autosomal gene DAZL also involved in germ cell development and gametogenesis. This gene encodes a RNA-binding protein with two RNP motifs that was originally identified by its interaction with the infertility factors DAZ and DAZL. Two isoforms are encoded by transcript variants of this gene.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

This product has been assayed against 1.0 µg of Swine IgG in a standard capture ELISA using Peroxidase Conjugated Streptavidin and ABTS (2,2’-azino-bis-[3-ethylbenthiazoline-6-sulfonic acid])

Supplier: Bioss

Phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) that phosphorylates PtdIns (Phosphatidylinositol), PtdIns4P (Phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate) and PtdIns(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain-containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Involved in the activation of AKT1 upon stimulation by G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) ligands such as CXCL12, sphingosine 1-phosphate, and lysophosphatidic acid. May also act downstream receptor tyrosine kinases. Required in different signaling pathways for stable platelet adhesion and aggregation. Plays a role in platelet activation signaling triggered by GPCRs, alpha-IIb/beta-3 integrins (ITGA2B/ ITGB3) and ITAM (immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif)-bearing receptors such as GP6. Regulates the strength of adhesion of ITGA2B/ ITGB3 activated receptors necessary for the cellular transmission of contractile forces. Required for platelet aggregation induced by F2 (thrombin) and thromboxane A2 (TXA2). Has a role in cell survival. May have a role in cell migration. Involved in the early stage of autophagosome formation. Modulates the intracellular level of PtdIns3P (Phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate) and activates PIK3C3 kinase activity. May act as a scaffold, independently of its lipid kinase activity to positively regulate autophagy. May have a role in insulin signaling as scaffolding protein in which the lipid kinase activity is not required. May have a kinase-independent function in regulating cell proliferation and in clathrin-mediated endocytosis. Mediator of oncogenic signal in cell lines lacking PTEN. The lipid kinase activity is necessary for its role in oncogenic transformation. Required for the growth of ERBB2 and RAS driven tumors.

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

This gene encodes a member of the immunoglobulin receptor superfamily and is one of several Fc receptor-like glycoproteins clustered on the long arm of chromosome 1. The encoded protein has four extracellular C2-type immunoglobulin domains, a transmembrane domain and a cytoplasmic domain that contains three immune-receptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motifs. This protein may play a role in the function of memory B-cells in the epithelia. Aberrations in the chromosomal region encoding this gene are associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma and multiple myeloma.

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

This gene belongs to the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily. The encoded protein is postulated to play a regulatory role in suppressing FasL- and LIGHT-mediated cell death. It acts as a decoy receptor that competes with death receptors for ligand binding. Overexpression of this gene has been noted in gastrointestinal tract tumors, and it is located in a gene-rich cluster on chromosome 20, with other potentially tumor-related genes. Two transcript variants encoding the same isoform, but differing in the 5' UTR, have been observed for this gene.

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

This gene encodes a member of the aldo/keto reductase superfamily, which consists of more than 40 known enzymes and proteins. These enzymes catalyze the conversion of aldehydes and ketones to their corresponding alcohols by utilizing NADH and/or NADPH as cofactors. The enzymes display overlapping but distinct substrate specificity. This enzyme catalyzes the bioreduction of chlordecone, a toxic organochlorine pesticide, to chlordecone alcohol in liver. This gene shares high sequence identity with three other gene members and is clustered with those three genes at chromosome 10p15-p14.

Supplier: Bioss

Histone demethylase that demethylates both 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) of histone H3, thereby acting as a coactivator or a corepressor, depending on the context. Acts by oxidizing the substrate by FAD to generate the corresponding imine that is subsequently hydrolyzed. Acts as a corepressor by mediating demethylation of H3K4me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. Demethylates both mono- (H3K4me1) and di-methylated (H3K4me2) H3K4me. May play a role in the repression of neuronal genes. Alone, it is unable to demethylate H3K4me on nucleosomes and requires the presence of RCOR1/CoREST to achieve such activity. Also acts as a coactivator of androgen receptor (ANDR)-dependent transcription, by being recruited to ANDR target genes and mediating demethylation of H3K9me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression. The presence of PRKCB in ANDR-containing complexes, which mediates phosphorylation of 'Thr-6' of histone H3 (H3T6ph), a specific tag that prevents demethylation H3K4me, prevents H3K4me demethylase activity of KDM1A. Demethylates di-methylated 'Lys-370' of p53/TP53 which prevents interaction of p53/TP53 with TP53BP1 and represses p53/TP53-mediated transcriptional activation. Demethylates and stabilizes the DNA methylase DNMT1. Required for gastrulation during embryogenesis. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development. Effector of SNAI1-mediated transcription repression of E-cadherin/CDH1, CDN7 and KRT8. Required for the maintenance of the silenced state of the SNAI1 target genes E-cadherin/CDH1 and CDN7.

Supplier: Bioss

Histone demethylase that demethylates both 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) of histone H3, thereby acting as a coactivator or a corepressor, depending on the context. Acts by oxidizing the substrate by FAD to generate the corresponding imine that is subsequently hydrolyzed. Acts as a corepressor by mediating demethylation of H3K4me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. Demethylates both mono- (H3K4me1) and di-methylated (H3K4me2) H3K4me. May play a role in the repression of neuronal genes. Alone, it is unable to demethylate H3K4me on nucleosomes and requires the presence of RCOR1/CoREST to achieve such activity. Also acts as a coactivator of androgen receptor (ANDR)-dependent transcription, by being recruited to ANDR target genes and mediating demethylation of H3K9me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression. The presence of PRKCB in ANDR-containing complexes, which mediates phosphorylation of 'Thr-6' of histone H3 (H3T6ph), a specific tag that prevents demethylation H3K4me, prevents H3K4me demethylase activity of KDM1A. Demethylates di-methylated 'Lys-370' of p53/TP53 which prevents interaction of p53/TP53 with TP53BP1 and represses p53/TP53-mediated transcriptional activation. Demethylates and stabilizes the DNA methylase DNMT1. Required for gastrulation during embryogenesis. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development. Effector of SNAI1-mediated transcription repression of E-cadherin/CDH1, CDN7 and KRT8. Required for the maintenance of the silenced state of the SNAI1 target genes E-cadherin/CDH1 and CDN7.

Supplier: Biotium

The epitope of this MAb maps in the N-terminus of PTH, a hormone produced by the parathyroid gland that regulates the concentration of calcium and phosphorus in extracellular fluid. This hormone elevates blood Ca2 levels by dissolving the salts in bone and preventing their renal excretion.It is produced in the parathyroid gland as an 84 amino acid single chain polypeptide. It can also be secreted as N-terminal truncated fragments or C-terminal fragments after intracellular degradation, as in case of hypercalcemia. Defects in this gene are a cause of familial isolated hypoparathyroidism (FIH); also called autosomal dominant hypoparathyroidism or autosomal dominant hypocalcemia. FIH is characterized by hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia due to inadequate secretion of parathyroid hormone. Symptoms are seizures, tetany and cramps. FIH exist both as autosomal dominant and recessive forms of hypoparathyroidism.

CF® dyes are Biotium's next-generation fluorescent dyes. CF®405S is a blue fluorescent dye (Ex/Em 404/431 nm) with superior brightness compared to other blue dyes; it is also compatible with super-resolution imaging by SIM. Note: Conjugates of blue fluorescent dyes are not recommended for detecting low abundance targets, because blue dyes have lower fluorescence and can give higher non-specific background than other dye colors.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Secondary Goat Anti-IgG (H&L) Reacts with Rat

Supplier: Prosci

SMAD1 belongs to the SMAD family. SMAD proteins are signal transducers and transcriptional modulators that mediate multiple signaling pathways. SMAD1 mediates the signals of the bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs), which are involved in a range of biological activities including cell growth, apoptosis, morphogenesis, development and immune responses. In response to BMP ligands, SMAD1 can be phosphorylated and activated by the BMP receptor kinase. The phosphorylated form of SMAD1 forms a complex with SMAD4, which is important for its function in the transcription regulation. SMAD1 is a target for SMAD-specific E3 ubiquitin ligases, such as SMURF1 and SMURF2, and undergoes ubiquitination and proteasome-mediated degradation.The protein encoded by this gene belongs to the SMAD, a family of proteins similar to the gene products of the Drosophila gene 'mothers against decapentaplegic' (Mad) and the C. elegans gene Sma. SMAD proteins are signal transducers and transcriptional modulators that mediate multiple signaling pathways. This protein mediates the signals of the bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs), which are involved in a range of biological activities including cell growth, apoptosis, morphogenesis, development and immune responses. In response to BMP ligands, this protein can be phosphorylated and activated by the BMP receptor kinase. The phosphorylated form of this protein forms a complex with SMAD4, which is important for its function in the transcription regulation. This protein is a target for SMAD-specific E3 ubiquitin ligases, such as SMURF1 and SMURF2, and undergoes ubiquitination and proteasome-mediated degradation. Alternatively spliced transcript variants encoding the same protein have been observed.

Supplier: Prosci

Activin receptors are all transmembrane proteins, composed of a ligand-binding extracellular domain with cysteine-rich region, a transmembrane domain, and a cytoplasmic domain with predicted serine/threonine specificity. Type I receptors are essential for signaling; and type II receptors are required for binding ligands and for expression of type I receptors. Type I and II receptors form a stable complex after ligand binding, resulting in phosphorylation of type I receptors by type II receptors. ACVR1 is activin A type I receptor which signals a particular transcriptional response in concert with activin type II receptors.Activins are dimeric growth and differentiation factors which belong to the transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) superfamily of structurally related signaling proteins. Activins signal through a heteromeric complex of receptor serine kinases which include at least two type I ( I and IB) and two type II (II and IIB) receptors. These receptors are all transmembrane proteins, composed of a ligand-binding extracellular domain with cysteine-rich region, a transmembrane domain, and a cytoplasmic domain with predicted serine/threonine specificity. Type I receptors are essential for signaling; and type II receptors are required for binding ligands and for expression of type I receptors. Type I and II receptors form a stable complex after ligand binding, resulting in phosphorylation of type I receptors by type II receptors. This gene encodes activin A type I receptor which signals a particular transcriptional response in concert with activin type II receptors.

Supplier: Prosci

HNRPK belongs to the subfamily of ubiquitously expressed heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins (hnRNPs). The hnRNPs are RNA binding proteins and they complex with heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA). The hnRNP proteins have distinct nucleic acid binding properties. HNRPK is located in the nucleoplasm and has three repeats of KH domains that binds to RNAs. It is distinct among other hnRNP proteins in its binding preference; it binds tenaciously to poly (C). This protein is also thought to have a role during cell cycle progession. Multiple alternatively spliced transcript variants have been described for this gene but only three variants have been fully described.This gene belongs to the subfamily of ubiquitously expressed heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins (hnRNPs). The hnRNPs are RNA binding proteins and they complex with heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA). These proteins are associated with pre-mRNAs in the nucleus and appear to influence pre-mRNA processing and other aspects of mRNA metabolism and transport. While all of the hnRNPs are present in the nucleus, some seem to shuttle between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. The hnRNP proteins have distinct nucleic acid binding properties. The protein encoded by this gene is located in the nucleoplasm and has three repeats of KH domains that binds to RNAs. It is distinct among other hnRNP proteins in its binding preference; it binds tenaciously to poly (C). This protein is also thought to have a role during cell cycle progession. Multiple alternatively spliced transcript variants have been described for this gene but only three variants have been fully described.

Supplier: Prosci

F13B contains 10 Sushi (CCP/SCR) domains. The B chain of factor XIII is not catalytically active, but is thought to stabilize the A subunits and regulate the rate of transglutaminase formation by thrombin. Defects in F13B can result in a lifelong bleeding tendency, defective wound healing, and habitual abortion.This gene encodes coagulation factor XIII B subunit. Coagulation factor XIII is the last zymogen to become activated in the blood coagulation cascade. Plasma factor XIII is a heterotetramer composed of 2 A subunits and 2 B subunits. The A subunits have catalytic function, and the B subunits do not have enzymatic activity and may serve as a plasma carrier molecules. Platelet factor XIII is comprised only of 2 A subunits, which are identical to those of plasma origin. Upon activation by the cleavage of the activation peptide by thrombin and in the presence of calcium ion, the plasma factor XIII dissociates its B subunits and yields the same active enzyme, factor XIIIa, as platelet factor XIII. This enzyme acts as a transglutaminase to catalyze the formation of gamma-glutamyl-epsilon-lysine crosslinking between fibrin molecules, thus stabilizing the fibrin clot. Factor XIII deficiency is classified into two categories: type I deficiency, characterized by the lack of both the A and B subunits; and type II deficiency, characterized by the lack of the A subunit alone. These defects can result in a lifelong bleeding tendency, defective wound healing, and habitual abortion. Publication Note: This RefSeq record includes a subset of the publications that are available for this gene. Please see the Entrez Gene record to access additional publications.

Supplier: Prosci

Semaphorins are a large family, including both secreted and membrane associated proteins, many of which have been implicated as inhibitors or chemorepellents in axon pathfinding, fasciculation and branching, and target selection. All semaphorins possess a semaphorin (Sema) domain and a PSI domain (found in plexins, semaphorins and integrins) in the N-terminal extracellular portion. Additional sequence motifs C-terminal to the semaphoring domain allow classification into distinct subfamilies. Results demonstrate that transmembrane semaphorins, like the secreted ones, can act as repulsive axon guidance cues. SEMA6D is a class 6 vertebrate transmembrane semaphorin that demonstrates alternative splicing. Six transcript variants have been identified and expression of the distinct encoded isoforms is thought to be regulated in a tissue- and development-dependent manner.Semaphorins are a large family, including both secreted and membrane associated proteins, many of which have been implicated as inhibitors or chemorepellents in axon pathfinding, fasciculation and branching, and target selection. All semaphorins possess a semaphorin (Sema) domain and a PSI domain (found in plexins, semaphorins and integrins) in the N-terminal extracellular portion. Additional sequence motifs C-terminal to the semaphorin domain allow classification into distinct subfamilies. Results demonstrate that transmembrane semaphorins, like the secreted ones, can act as repulsive axon guidance cues. This gene encodes a class 6 vertebrate transmembrane semaphorin that demonstrates alternative splicing. Six transcript variants have been identified and expression of the distinct encoded isoforms is thought to be regulated in a tissue- and development-dependent manner.

Supplier: Prosci

CYP1A1 is a member of the cytochrome P450 superfamily of enzymes. The cytochrome P450 proteins are monooxygenases which catalyze many reactions involved in drug metabolism and synthesis of cholesterol, steroids and other lipids. This protein localizes to the endoplasmic reticulum and its expression is induced by some polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), some of which are found in cigarette smoke. The enzyme's endogenous substrate is unknown; however, it is able to metabolize some PAHs to carcinogenic intermediates. CYP1A1 has been associated with lung cancer risk. This gene, CYP1A1, encodes a member of the cytochrome P450 superfamily of enzymes. The cytochrome P450 proteins are monooxygenases which catalyze many reactions involved in drug metabolism and synthesis of cholesterol, steroids and other lipids. This protein localizes to the endoplasmic reticulum and its expression is induced by some polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), some of which are found in cigarette smoke. The enzyme's endogenous substrate is unknown; however, it is able to metabolize some PAHs to carcinogenic intermediates. The gene has been associated with lung cancer risk. A related family member, CYP1A2, is located approximately 25 kb away from CYP1A1 on chromosome 15. Sequence Note: The RefSeq transcript and protein were derived from genomic sequence to make the sequence consistent with the reference genome assembly. The genomic coordinates used for the transcript record were based on alignments. Publication Note: This RefSeq record includes a subset of the publications that are available for this gene. Please see the Entrez Gene record to access additional publications.

Supplier: Diagnostic Biosystems

MSH6 is a heterodimer of MSH2 and binds to DNA containing G/T mismatches. The MSH2-MSH6 complex recognizes a single-base mispair insertion/deletion loop. An alteration of microsatellite repeats is the result of slippage owing to strand misalignment during DNA replication and is referred to as microsatellite instability (MSI). These defects in DNA repair pathways have been related to human carcinogenesis. Studies have shown the mutations of MLH-1, MSH2 and MSH6 genes contribute to the development of sporadic colorectal carcinoma. The repair of mismatch DNA is essential to maintaining the integrity of genetic information over time.

Supplier: Biotium

Eukaryotic histones are basic and water-soluble nuclear proteins. They form hetero-octameric nucleosome particles by wrapping 146 base pairs of DNA in a left-handed super-helical turn sequentially to form chromosomal fiber. Two molecules of each of the four core histones (H2A, H2B, H3, and H4) form the octamer; formed of two H2A-H2B dimers and two H3-H4 dimers, forming two nearly symmetrical halves by tertiary structure. Over 80% of nucleosomes contain the linker Histone H1, derived from an intronless gene that interacts with linker DNA between nucleosomes and mediates compaction into higher order chromatin. Histones are subject to posttranslational modification by enzymes primarily on their N-terminal tails, but also in their globular domains. Such modifications include methylation, citrullination, acetylation, phosphorylation, sumoylation, ubiquitination and ADP-ribosylation.

CF® dyes are Biotium's next-generation fluorescent dyes. CF®488A is a green fluorescent dye (Ex/Em 490/515 nm) with excellent brightness and photostability. The dye is minimally charged for less non-specific binding. CF®488A also is compatible with super-resolution imaging by TIRF.

Supplier: Bioss

Histone demethylase that demethylates both 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) of histone H3, thereby acting as a coactivator or a corepressor, depending on the context. Acts by oxidizing the substrate by FAD to generate the corresponding imine that is subsequently hydrolyzed. Acts as a corepressor by mediating demethylation of H3K4me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. Demethylates both mono- (H3K4me1) and di-methylated (H3K4me2) H3K4me. May play a role in the repression of neuronal genes. Alone, it is unable to demethylate H3K4me on nucleosomes and requires the presence of RCOR1/CoREST to achieve such activity. Also acts as a coactivator of androgen receptor (ANDR)-dependent transcription, by being recruited to ANDR target genes and mediating demethylation of H3K9me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression. The presence of PRKCB in ANDR-containing complexes, which mediates phosphorylation of 'Thr-6' of histone H3 (H3T6ph), a specific tag that prevents demethylation H3K4me, prevents H3K4me demethylase activity of KDM1A. Demethylates di-methylated 'Lys-370' of p53/TP53 which prevents interaction of p53/TP53 with TP53BP1 and represses p53/TP53-mediated transcriptional activation. Demethylates and stabilizes the DNA methylase DNMT1. Required for gastrulation during embryogenesis. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development. Effector of SNAI1-mediated transcription repression of E-cadherin/CDH1, CDN7 and KRT8. Required for the maintenance of the silenced state of the SNAI1 target genes E-cadherin/CDH1 and CDN7.