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Supplier: Bioss

Stress-activated serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in cytokines production, endocytosis, reorganization of the cytoskeleton, cell migration, cell cycle control, chromatin remodeling, DNA damage response and transcriptional regulation. Following stress, it is phosphorylated and activated by MAP kinase p38-alpha/MAPK14, leading to phosphorylation of substrates. Phosphorylates serine in the peptide sequence, Hyd-X-R-X(2)-S, where Hyd is a large hydrophobic residue. Phosphorylates ALOX5, CDC25B, CDC25C, ELAVL1, HNRNPA, HSF1, HSP27/HSPB1, KRT18, KRT2, LIMK1, LSP1, PABPC1, PARN, PDE4A, RCSD1, RPS6KA3, TAB3 and TTP/ZFP36. Mediates phosphorylation of HSP27/HSPB1 in response to stress, leading to dissociate HSP27/HSPB1 from large small heat-shock protein (sHsps) oligomers and impair their chaperone activities and ability to protect against oxidative stress effectively. Involved in inflammatory response by regulating tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and IL6 production post-transcriptionally: acts by phosphorylating AU-rich elements (AREs)-binding proteins ELAVL1, HNRNPA, PABPC1 and TTP/ZFP36, leading to regulate the stability and translation of TNF and IL6 mRNAs. Phosphorylation of TTP/ZFP36, a major post-transcriptional regulator of TNF, promotes its binding to 14-3-3 proteins and reduces its ARE mRNA affinity leading to inhibition of dependent degradation of ARE-containing transcript. Also involved in late G2/M checkpoint following DNA damage through a process of post-transcriptional mRNA stabilization: following DNA damage, relocalizes from nucleus to cytoplasm and phosphorylates HNRNPA and PARN, leading to stabilize GADD45A mRNA. Involved in toll-like receptor signaling pathway (TLR) in dendritic cells: required for acute TLR-induced macropinocytosis by phosphorylating and activating RPS6KA3.

Supplier: Bioss

Stress-activated serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in cytokines production, endocytosis, reorganization of the cytoskeleton, cell migration, cell cycle control, chromatin remodeling, DNA damage response and transcriptional regulation. Following stress, it is phosphorylated and activated by MAP kinase p38-alpha/MAPK14, leading to phosphorylation of substrates. Phosphorylates serine in the peptide sequence, Hyd-X-R-X(2)-S, where Hyd is a large hydrophobic residue. Phosphorylates ALOX5, CDC25B, CDC25C, ELAVL1, HNRNPA, HSF1, HSP27/HSPB1, KRT18, KRT2, LIMK1, LSP1, PABPC1, PARN, PDE4A, RCSD1, RPS6KA3, TAB3 and TTP/ZFP36. Mediates phosphorylation of HSP27/HSPB1 in response to stress, leading to dissociate HSP27/HSPB1 from large small heat-shock protein (sHsps) oligomers and impair their chaperone activities and ability to protect against oxidative stress effectively. Involved in inflammatory response by regulating tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and IL6 production post-transcriptionally: acts by phosphorylating AU-rich elements (AREs)-binding proteins ELAVL1, HNRNPA, PABPC1 and TTP/ZFP36, leading to regulate the stability and translation of TNF and IL6 mRNAs. Phosphorylation of TTP/ZFP36, a major post-transcriptional regulator of TNF, promotes its binding to 14-3-3 proteins and reduces its ARE mRNA affinity leading to inhibition of dependent degradation of ARE-containing transcript. Also involved in late G2/M checkpoint following DNA damage through a process of post-transcriptional mRNA stabilization: following DNA damage, relocalizes from nucleus to cytoplasm and phosphorylates HNRNPA and PARN, leading to stabilize GADD45A mRNA. Involved in toll-like receptor signaling pathway (TLR) in dendritic cells: required for acute TLR-induced macropinocytosis by phosphorylating and activating RPS6KA3.

Supplier: Bioss

Stress-activated serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in cytokines production, endocytosis, reorganization of the cytoskeleton, cell migration, cell cycle control, chromatin remodeling, DNA damage response and transcriptional regulation. Following stress, it is phosphorylated and activated by MAP kinase p38-alpha/MAPK14, leading to phosphorylation of substrates. Phosphorylates serine in the peptide sequence, Hyd-X-R-X(2)-S, where Hyd is a large hydrophobic residue. Phosphorylates ALOX5, CDC25B, CDC25C, ELAVL1, HNRNPA, HSF1, HSP27/HSPB1, KRT18, KRT2, LIMK1, LSP1, PABPC1, PARN, PDE4A, RCSD1, RPS6KA3, TAB3 and TTP/ZFP36. Mediates phosphorylation of HSP27/HSPB1 in response to stress, leading to dissociate HSP27/HSPB1 from large small heat-shock protein (sHsps) oligomers and impair their chaperone activities and ability to protect against oxidative stress effectively. Involved in inflammatory response by regulating tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and IL6 production post-transcriptionally: acts by phosphorylating AU-rich elements (AREs)-binding proteins ELAVL1, HNRNPA, PABPC1 and TTP/ZFP36, leading to regulate the stability and translation of TNF and IL6 mRNAs. Phosphorylation of TTP/ZFP36, a major post-transcriptional regulator of TNF, promotes its binding to 14-3-3 proteins and reduces its ARE mRNA affinity leading to inhibition of dependent degradation of ARE-containing transcript. Also involved in late G2/M checkpoint following DNA damage through a process of post-transcriptional mRNA stabilization: following DNA damage, relocalizes from nucleus to cytoplasm and phosphorylates HNRNPA and PARN, leading to stabilize GADD45A mRNA. Involved in toll-like receptor signaling pathway (TLR) in dendritic cells: required for acute TLR-induced macropinocytosis by phosphorylating and activating RPS6KA3.

Supplier: Bioss

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts downstream of mTOR signaling in response to growth factors and nutrients to promote cell proliferation, cell growth and cell cycle progression. Regulates protein synthesis through phosphorylation of EIF4B, RPS6 and EEF2K, and contributes to cell survival by repressing the pro-apoptotic function of BAD. Under conditions of nutrient depletion, the inactive form associates with the EIF3 translation initiation complex. Upon mitogenic stimulation, phosphorylation by the mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1) leads to dissociation from the EIF3 complex and activation. The active form then phosphorylates and activates several substrates in the pre-initiation complex, including the EIF2B complex and the cap-binding complex component EIF4B. Also controls translation initiation by phosphorylating a negative regulator of EIF4A, PDCD4, targeting it for ubiquitination and subsequent proteolysis. Promotes initiation of the pioneer round of protein synthesis by phosphorylating POLDIP3/SKAR. In response to IGF1, activates translation elongation by phosphorylating EEF2 kinase (EEF2K), which leads to its inhibition and thus activation of EEF2. Also plays a role in feedback regulation of mTORC2 by mTORC1 by phosphorylating RICTOR, resulting in the inhibition of mTORC2 and AKT1 signaling. Mediates cell survival by phosphorylating the pro-apoptotic protein BAD and suppressing its pro-apoptotic function. Phosphorylates mitochondrial URI1 leading to dissociation of a URI1-PPP1CC complex. The free mitochondrial PPP1CC can then dephosphorylate RPS6KB1 at Thr-412, which is proposed to be a negative feedback mechanism for the RPS6KB1 anti-apoptotic function. Mediates TNF-alpha-induced insulin resistance by phosphorylating IRS1 at multiple serine residues, resulting in accelerated degradation of IRS1. In cells lacking functional TSC1-2 complex, constitutively phosphorylates and inhibits GSK3B.

Supplier: Bioss

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts downstream of mTOR signaling in response to growth factors and nutrients to promote cell proliferation, cell growth and cell cycle progression. Regulates protein synthesis through phosphorylation of EIF4B, RPS6 and EEF2K, and contributes to cell survival by repressing the pro-apoptotic function of BAD. Under conditions of nutrient depletion, the inactive form associates with the EIF3 translation initiation complex. Upon mitogenic stimulation, phosphorylation by the mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1) leads to dissociation from the EIF3 complex and activation. The active form then phosphorylates and activates several substrates in the pre-initiation complex, including the EIF2B complex and the cap-binding complex component EIF4B. Also controls translation initiation by phosphorylating a negative regulator of EIF4A, PDCD4, targeting it for ubiquitination and subsequent proteolysis. Promotes initiation of the pioneer round of protein synthesis by phosphorylating POLDIP3/SKAR. In response to IGF1, activates translation elongation by phosphorylating EEF2 kinase (EEF2K), which leads to its inhibition and thus activation of EEF2. Also plays a role in feedback regulation of mTORC2 by mTORC1 by phosphorylating RICTOR, resulting in the inhibition of mTORC2 and AKT1 signaling. Mediates cell survival by phosphorylating the pro-apoptotic protein BAD and suppressing its pro-apoptotic function. Phosphorylates mitochondrial URI1 leading to dissociation of a URI1-PPP1CC complex. The free mitochondrial PPP1CC can then dephosphorylate RPS6KB1 at Thr-412, which is proposed to be a negative feedback mechanism for the RPS6KB1 anti-apoptotic function. Mediates TNF-alpha-induced insulin resistance by phosphorylating IRS1 at multiple serine residues, resulting in accelerated degradation of IRS1. In cells lacking functional TSC1-2 complex, constitutively phosphorylates and inhibits GSK3B.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Secondary Goat Anti-IgG (H&L) Reacts with Rat

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

0.5mg. Fluorescein. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum antisera. Lyophilized. Contains preservative and stabilizer.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Secondary Rabbit Anti-IgG (H&L) Reacts with Goat

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Secondary Rabbit Anti-IgG (H&L) Reacts with Rat

Supplier: MilliporeSigma

Primary Mouse Anti-Integrin beta 6 (442.5C4) Reacts with Human

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Secondary Sheep Anti-IgG (H&L) Reacts with Rat

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

This gene belongs to the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily. The encoded protein is postulated to play a regulatory role in suppressing FasL- and LIGHT-mediated cell death. It acts as a decoy receptor that competes with death receptors for ligand binding. Overexpression of this gene has been noted in gastrointestinal tract tumors, and it is located in a gene-rich cluster on chromosome 20, with other potentially tumor-related genes. Two transcript variants encoding the same isoform, but differing in the 5' UTR, have been observed for this gene.

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

This gene encodes a member of the immunoglobulin receptor superfamily and is one of several Fc receptor-like glycoproteins clustered on the long arm of chromosome 1. The encoded protein has four extracellular C2-type immunoglobulin domains, a transmembrane domain and a cytoplasmic domain that contains three immune-receptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motifs. This protein may play a role in the function of memory B-cells in the epithelia. Aberrations in the chromosomal region encoding this gene are associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma and multiple myeloma.

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

This gene encodes a member of the aldo/keto reductase superfamily, which consists of more than 40 known enzymes and proteins. These enzymes catalyze the conversion of aldehydes and ketones to their corresponding alcohols by utilizing NADH and/or NADPH as cofactors. The enzymes display overlapping but distinct substrate specificity. This enzyme catalyzes the bioreduction of chlordecone, a toxic organochlorine pesticide, to chlordecone alcohol in liver. This gene shares high sequence identity with three other gene members and is clustered with those three genes at chromosome 10p15-p14.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Secondary Goat Anti-IgG (H&L) Reacts with Rat

Supplier: Biotium

The epitope of this MAb maps in the N-terminus of PTH, a hormone produced by the parathyroid gland that regulates the concentration of calcium and phosphorus in extracellular fluid. This hormone elevates blood Ca2 levels by dissolving the salts in bone and preventing their renal excretion.It is produced in the parathyroid gland as an 84 amino acid single chain polypeptide. It can also be secreted as N-terminal truncated fragments or C-terminal fragments after intracellular degradation, as in case of hypercalcemia. Defects in this gene are a cause of familial isolated hypoparathyroidism (FIH); also called autosomal dominant hypoparathyroidism or autosomal dominant hypocalcemia. FIH is characterized by hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia due to inadequate secretion of parathyroid hormone. Symptoms are seizures, tetany and cramps. FIH exist both as autosomal dominant and recessive forms of hypoparathyroidism.

CF® dyes are Biotium's next-generation fluorescent dyes. CF®405S is a blue fluorescent dye (Ex/Em 404/431 nm) with superior brightness compared to other blue dyes; it is also compatible with super-resolution imaging by SIM. Note: Conjugates of blue fluorescent dyes are not recommended for detecting low abundance targets, because blue dyes have lower fluorescence and can give higher non-specific background than other dye colors.

Supplier: Biotium

Eukaryotic histones are basic and water-soluble nuclear proteins. They form hetero-octameric nucleosome particles by wrapping 146 base pairs of DNA in a left-handed super-helical turn sequentially to form chromosomal fiber. Two molecules of each of the four core histones (H2A, H2B, H3, and H4) form the octamer; formed of two H2A-H2B dimers and two H3-H4 dimers, forming two nearly symmetrical halves by tertiary structure. Over 80% of nucleosomes contain the linker Histone H1, derived from an intronless gene that interacts with linker DNA between nucleosomes and mediates compaction into higher order chromatin. Histones are subject to posttranslational modification by enzymes primarily on their N-terminal tails, but also in their globular domains. Such modifications include methylation, citrullination, acetylation, phosphorylation, sumoylation, ubiquitination and ADP-ribosylation.

CF® dyes are Biotium's next-generation fluorescent dyes. CF®488A is a green fluorescent dye (Ex/Em 490/515 nm) with excellent brightness and photostability. The dye is minimally charged for less non-specific binding. CF®488A also is compatible with super-resolution imaging by TIRF.

Supplier: Bioss

Phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) that phosphorylates PtdIns (Phosphatidylinositol), PtdIns4P (Phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate) and PtdIns(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain-containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Involved in the activation of AKT1 upon stimulation by G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) ligands such as CXCL12, sphingosine 1-phosphate, and lysophosphatidic acid. May also act downstream receptor tyrosine kinases. Required in different signaling pathways for stable platelet adhesion and aggregation. Plays a role in platelet activation signaling triggered by GPCRs, alpha-IIb/beta-3 integrins (ITGA2B/ ITGB3) and ITAM (immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif)-bearing receptors such as GP6. Regulates the strength of adhesion of ITGA2B/ ITGB3 activated receptors necessary for the cellular transmission of contractile forces. Required for platelet aggregation induced by F2 (thrombin) and thromboxane A2 (TXA2). Has a role in cell survival. May have a role in cell migration. Involved in the early stage of autophagosome formation. Modulates the intracellular level of PtdIns3P (Phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate) and activates PIK3C3 kinase activity. May act as a scaffold, independently of its lipid kinase activity to positively regulate autophagy. May have a role in insulin signaling as scaffolding protein in which the lipid kinase activity is not required. May have a kinase-independent function in regulating cell proliferation and in clathrin-mediated endocytosis. Mediator of oncogenic signal in cell lines lacking PTEN. The lipid kinase activity is necessary for its role in oncogenic transformation. Required for the growth of ERBB2 and RAS driven tumors.

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

Proteins of the matrix metalloproteinase (MMP) family are involved in the breakdown of extracellular matrix in normal physiological processes, such as embryonic development, reproduction, and tissue remodeling, as well as in disease processes, such as arthritis and metastasis. Most MMPs are secreted as inactive proproteins which are activated when cleaved by extracellular proteinases. MMP9 degrades type IV and V collagens. Studies in rhesus monkeys suggest that the enzyme is involved in IL-8-induced mobilization of hematopoietic progenitor cells from bone marrow, and murine studies suggest a role in tumor-associated tissue remodeling.

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

Proteins of the matrix metalloproteinase (MMP) family are involved in the breakdown of extracellular matrix in normal physiological processes, such as embryonic development, reproduction, and tissue remodeling, as well as in disease processes, such as arthritis and metastasis. Most MMPs are secreted as inactive proproteins which are activated when cleaved by extracellular proteinases. However, MMP15 is a member of the membrane-type MMP (MT-MMP) subfamily; each member of this subfamily contains a potential transmembrane domain suggesting that these proteins are expressed at the cell surface rather than secreted.

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

This gene encodes a member of the microtubule affinity-regulating kinase family. These protein kinases phosphorylate microtubule-associated proteins and regulate the transition between stable and dynamic microtubules. The encoded protein is associated with the centrosome throughout mitosis and may be involved in cell cycle control. Expression of this gene is a potential marker for cancer, and the encoded protein may also play a role in Alzheimer's disease. Pseudogenes of this gene are located on both the short and long arm of chromosome 3. Alternatively spliced transcript variants encoding multiple isoforms have been observed for this gene.

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

Acetylcholinesterase hydrolyzes the neurotransmitter, acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions and brain cholinergic synapses, and thus terminates signal transmission. The Protein is also found on the red blood cell membranes, where it constitutes the Yt blood group antigen. Acetylcholinesterase exists in multiple molecular forms which possess similar catalytic properties, but differ in their oligomeric assembly and mode of cell attachment to the cell surface. The major form of acetylcholinesterase found in brain, muscle and other tissues is the hydrophilic species, which forms disulfide-linked oligomers with collagenous, or lipid-containing structural subunits.

Supplier: Thermo Scientific

This gene encodes a protein containing domains found in the La related protein of Drosophila melanogaster. La motif-containing proteins are thought to be RNA-binding proteins, where the La motif and adjacent amino acids fold into an RNA recognition motif. The La motif is also found in proteins unrelated to the La protein. Alternative splicing has been observed at this locus and three variants, encoding distinct isoforms, are described. Additional splice variation has been identified but the full-length nature of these transcripts has not been determined.

Supplier: Bioss

Histone demethylase that demethylates both 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) of histone H3, thereby acting as a coactivator or a corepressor, depending on the context. Acts by oxidizing the substrate by FAD to generate the corresponding imine that is subsequently hydrolyzed. Acts as a corepressor by mediating demethylation of H3K4me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. Demethylates both mono- (H3K4me1) and di-methylated (H3K4me2) H3K4me. May play a role in the repression of neuronal genes. Alone, it is unable to demethylate H3K4me on nucleosomes and requires the presence of RCOR1/CoREST to achieve such activity. Also acts as a coactivator of androgen receptor (ANDR)-dependent transcription, by being recruited to ANDR target genes and mediating demethylation of H3K9me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression. The presence of PRKCB in ANDR-containing complexes, which mediates phosphorylation of 'Thr-6' of histone H3 (H3T6ph), a specific tag that prevents demethylation H3K4me, prevents H3K4me demethylase activity of KDM1A. Demethylates di-methylated 'Lys-370' of p53/TP53 which prevents interaction of p53/TP53 with TP53BP1 and represses p53/TP53-mediated transcriptional activation. Demethylates and stabilizes the DNA methylase DNMT1. Required for gastrulation during embryogenesis. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development. Effector of SNAI1-mediated transcription repression of E-cadherin/CDH1, CDN7 and KRT8. Required for the maintenance of the silenced state of the SNAI1 target genes E-cadherin/CDH1 and CDN7.

Supplier: Bioss

Histone demethylase that demethylates both 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) of histone H3, thereby acting as a coactivator or a corepressor, depending on the context. Acts by oxidizing the substrate by FAD to generate the corresponding imine that is subsequently hydrolyzed. Acts as a corepressor by mediating demethylation of H3K4me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. Demethylates both mono- (H3K4me1) and di-methylated (H3K4me2) H3K4me. May play a role in the repression of neuronal genes. Alone, it is unable to demethylate H3K4me on nucleosomes and requires the presence of RCOR1/CoREST to achieve such activity. Also acts as a coactivator of androgen receptor (ANDR)-dependent transcription, by being recruited to ANDR target genes and mediating demethylation of H3K9me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression. The presence of PRKCB in ANDR-containing complexes, which mediates phosphorylation of 'Thr-6' of histone H3 (H3T6ph), a specific tag that prevents demethylation H3K4me, prevents H3K4me demethylase activity of KDM1A. Demethylates di-methylated 'Lys-370' of p53/TP53 which prevents interaction of p53/TP53 with TP53BP1 and represses p53/TP53-mediated transcriptional activation. Demethylates and stabilizes the DNA methylase DNMT1. Required for gastrulation during embryogenesis. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development. Effector of SNAI1-mediated transcription repression of E-cadherin/CDH1, CDN7 and KRT8. Required for the maintenance of the silenced state of the SNAI1 target genes E-cadherin/CDH1 and CDN7.

Supplier: Biotium

MITF (microphthalmia transcription factor) is a basic helix-loop-helix-leucine-zipper (bHLH-Zip) transcription factor that regulates the development and survival of melanocytes and retinal pigment epithelium, and also is involved in transcription of pigmentation enzyme genes such as tyrosinase TRP1 and TRP2. MITF has been shown to be phosphorylated by MAP kinase in response to c-kit activation, resulting in upregulation of MITF transcriptional activity. Mutations of the MITF gene are associated with the autosomal dominant hereditary deafness and pigmentation condition, Waardenburg Syndrome type 2A. Multiple isoforms of MITF exist, including MITF-A, MITF-B, MITF-C, MITF-H, and MITF-M, which differ in the amino-terminal domain and in their expression patterns. The MITF-M isoform is restricted to the melanocyte cell lineage. This MAb recognizes a nuclear protein, which is expressed in the majority of primary and metastatic epithelioid malignant melanomas as well as in normal melanocytes, benign nevi and dysplastic nevi.

CF® dyes are Biotium's next-generation fluorescent dyes. CF®640R is a far-red fluorescent dye (Ex/Em 642/662 nm) with excellent brightness, and the best photostabiity among spectrally-similar dyes.

Supplier: Bioss

Histone demethylase that demethylates both 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) of histone H3, thereby acting as a coactivator or a corepressor, depending on the context. Acts by oxidizing the substrate by FAD to generate the corresponding imine that is subsequently hydrolyzed. Acts as a corepressor by mediating demethylation of H3K4me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. Demethylates both mono- (H3K4me1) and di-methylated (H3K4me2) H3K4me. May play a role in the repression of neuronal genes. Alone, it is unable to demethylate H3K4me on nucleosomes and requires the presence of RCOR1/CoREST to achieve such activity. Also acts as a coactivator of androgen receptor (ANDR)-dependent transcription, by being recruited to ANDR target genes and mediating demethylation of H3K9me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression. The presence of PRKCB in ANDR-containing complexes, which mediates phosphorylation of 'Thr-6' of histone H3 (H3T6ph), a specific tag that prevents demethylation H3K4me, prevents H3K4me demethylase activity of KDM1A. Demethylates di-methylated 'Lys-370' of p53/TP53 which prevents interaction of p53/TP53 with TP53BP1 and represses p53/TP53-mediated transcriptional activation. Demethylates and stabilizes the DNA methylase DNMT1. Required for gastrulation during embryogenesis. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development. Effector of SNAI1-mediated transcription repression of E-cadherin/CDH1, CDN7 and KRT8. Required for the maintenance of the silenced state of the SNAI1 target genes E-cadherin/CDH1 and CDN7.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Secondary Goat Anti-IgG (H&L) Reacts with Rat

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.

Supplier: Rockland Immunochemical

Produced through a multi-stage process that includes delipidation, salt fractionation, ion-exchange chromatography, gel filtration, and affinity chromatography. No contaminating proteins are observed when assayed at a protein concentration of 20mg/mL against anti-whole serum or anti-fragment specific antisera. All immunoglobulin fragments are prepared from highly purified, whole molecules subject to enzymatic digestion.